Here are the answers to the last week's aptitude questions. Read more for the answers. Refer here for the corresponding questions!!!
1.Ans: (b)20:36:63
Method:
4*9/4:7*9/4
5:9:63/4
20:36:63
2.Ans: (a) 4*4/9 days (or) 40/9. days
Method:
A--> 8days --> 1 day work=1/8
B-->10days =1/10
A+B = 1/8+1/10
= 9/40
40/9 = 4*4/9 days.
3.Ans:8+8+8+88+888=1000
4.Ans: (c) Sunday
Method:
28 may 2006 =2005 year + period from 1.1.2006 to 28.5.2006
Odd days in 1600 year = 0
Odd days in 400 year = 0
5 year = (4 ordinary year + 1 leap year)
= (4*1+1*2)
= 6 odd days.
Jan feb mar apr may
31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 28 = 148 days.
148 days = (21 weeks + 1 day)
= 1 odd day.
Total Number of odd days = 0+0+6+1 =7
Therefore there is no odd day. Hence it's Sunday.
5.Ans: (d) 100%
Method:
C.P be RS * and S.P be RS .Y
3(y-x) = 2y-x = y =2x
Profit =RS(y-x) =2x-x
=RS.x
Profit% =(x/x*100)% =100%
6.Ans:(b) 28
Method:
n(n-1)/2 = number of hand shakes.
8(7)/2 = 28
7. Ans:
(d) 2800
8.Ans:
(b) M
Method:
E=5(alphabet)
M=13
H=8
(5+8=13)
Same method I=9
D=4
(9+4=13)
So ans is M
9. Ans:
4/4+4*4=20
Method:
4/4=1+4=5*4=20.
10. Ans:
(a) Cost price of horse = Rs. 400 & the cost price of cart = 200.
Method:-
Let x be the cost price of the horse and y be the cost price of the cart.
In the first sale there is no loss or profit. (i.e.) The loss obtained is equal to the
gain.
Therefore (10/100) * x = (20/100) * y
X = 2 * y -----------------(1)
In the second sale, he lost Rs. 10. (i.e.) The loss is greater than the profit by
Rs. 10.
Therefore (5 / 100) * x = (5 / 100) * y + 10 -------(2)
Substituting (1) in (2) we get
(10 / 100) * y = (5 / 100) * y + 10
(5 / 100) * y = 10
y = 200
From (1) 2 * 200 = x = 400.
1.Ans: (b)20:36:63
Method:
4*9/4:7*9/4
5:9:63/4
20:36:63
2.Ans: (a) 4*4/9 days (or) 40/9. days
Method:
A--> 8days --> 1 day work=1/8
B-->10days =1/10
A+B = 1/8+1/10
= 9/40
40/9 = 4*4/9 days.
3.Ans:8+8+8+88+888=1000
4.Ans: (c) Sunday
Method:
28 may 2006 =2005 year + period from 1.1.2006 to 28.5.2006
Odd days in 1600 year = 0
Odd days in 400 year = 0
5 year = (4 ordinary year + 1 leap year)
= (4*1+1*2)
= 6 odd days.
Jan feb mar apr may
31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 28 = 148 days.
148 days = (21 weeks + 1 day)
= 1 odd day.
Total Number of odd days = 0+0+6+1 =7
Therefore there is no odd day. Hence it's Sunday.
5.Ans: (d) 100%
Method:
C.P be RS * and S.P be RS .Y
3(y-x) = 2y-x = y =2x
Profit =RS(y-x) =2x-x
=RS.x
Profit% =(x/x*100)% =100%
6.Ans:(b) 28
Method:
n(n-1)/2 = number of hand shakes.
8(7)/2 = 28
7. Ans:
(d) 2800
8.Ans:
(b) M
Method:
E=5(alphabet)
M=13
H=8
(5+8=13)
Same method I=9
D=4
(9+4=13)
So ans is M
9. Ans:
4/4+4*4=20
Method:
4/4=1+4=5*4=20.
10. Ans:
(a) Cost price of horse = Rs. 400 & the cost price of cart = 200.
Method:-
Let x be the cost price of the horse and y be the cost price of the cart.
In the first sale there is no loss or profit. (i.e.) The loss obtained is equal to the
gain.
Therefore (10/100) * x = (20/100) * y
X = 2 * y -----------------(1)
In the second sale, he lost Rs. 10. (i.e.) The loss is greater than the profit by
Rs. 10.
Therefore (5 / 100) * x = (5 / 100) * y + 10 -------(2)
Substituting (1) in (2) we get
(10 / 100) * y = (5 / 100) * y + 10
(5 / 100) * y = 10
y = 200
From (1) 2 * 200 = x = 400.
No comments:
Post a Comment